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The SSCP certification exam is administered by the International Information System Security Certification Consortium (ISC)², a non-profit organization that specializes in information security education and certification. SSCP exam is designed to test the candidate's knowledge and understanding of information security concepts, principles, and best practices. It is a rigorous exam that assesses the candidate's ability to identify, analyze, and respond to security threats and vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 131
Which of the following protection devices is used for spot protection within a few inches of the object, rather than for overall room security monitoring?
- A. Field-powered devices
- B. Wave pattern motion detectors
- C. Capacitance detectors
- D. Audio detectors
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Capacitance detectors monitor an electrical field surrounding the object being monitored. They are used for spot protection within a few inches of the object, rather than for overall room security monitoring used by wave detectors. Penetration of this field changes the electrical capacitance of the field enough to generate and alarm. Wave pattern motion detectors generate a frequency wave pattern and send an alarm if the pattern is disturbed as it is reflected back to its receiver. Field-powered devices are a type of personnel access control devices. Audio detectors simply monitor a room for any abnormal sound wave generation and trigger an alarm.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 10: Physical security (page 344).
NEW QUESTION # 132
Within the OSI model, at what layer are some of the SLIP, CSLIP, PPP control functions provided?
- A. Data Link
- B. Transport
- C. Application
- D. Presentation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
RFC 1661 - The Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) specifies that the Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) provides a standard method for transporting multi-protocol datagrams over point-to-point links. PPP is comprised of three main components:
1 A method for encapsulating multi-protocol datagrams.
2 A Link Control Protocol (LCP) for establishing, configuring, and testing the data-link connection.
3 A family of Network Control Protocols (NCPs) for establishing and configuring different network-layer protocols.
NEW QUESTION # 133
__________ attacks capitalize on programming errors and can allow the originator to gain additional privileges on a machine.
- A. Buffer Overflow
- B. Denial of Service
- C. Distributed Denial of Service
- D. Coordinated
- E. SYN Flood
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 134
Which of the following statements pertaining to stream ciphers is correct?
- A. A stream cipher is not appropriate for hardware-based encryption.
- B. A stream cipher generates what is called a keystream.
- C. A stream cipher is a type of asymmetric encryption algorithm.
- D. A stream cipher is slower than a block cipher.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A stream cipher is a type of symmetric encryption algorithm that operates on continuous streams of plain text and is appropriate for hardware-based encryption.
Stream ciphers can be designed to be exceptionally fast, much faster than any block cipher. A stream cipher generates what is called a keystream (a sequence of bits used as a key).
Stream ciphers can be viewed as approximating the action of a proven unbreakable cipher, the one-time pad (OTP), sometimes known as the Vernam cipher. A one-time pad uses a keystream of completely random digits. The keystream is combined with the plaintext digits one at a time to form the ciphertext. This system was proved to be secure by Claude Shannon in 1949. However, the keystream must be (at least) the same length as the plaintext, and generated completely at random. This makes the system very cumbersome to implement in practice, and as a result the one-time pad has not been widely used, except for the most critical applications.
A stream cipher makes use of a much smaller and more convenient key - 128 bits, for
example. Based on this key, it generates a pseudorandom keystream which can be
combined with the plaintext digits in a similar fashion to the one-time pad. However, this
comes at a cost: because the keystream is now pseudorandom, and not truly random, the
proof of security associated with the one-time pad no longer holds: it is quite possible for a
stream cipher to be completely insecure if it is not implemented properly as we have seen
with the Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) protocol.
Encryption is accomplished by combining the keystream with the plaintext, usually with the
bitwise XOR operation.
Source: DUPUIS, Clement, CISSP Open Study Guide on domain 5, cryptography, April
1999.
More details can be obtained on Stream Ciphers in RSA Security's FAQ on Stream
Ciphers.
NEW QUESTION # 135
Which xDSL flavour delivers both downstream and upstream speeds of 1.544 Mbps over two copper twisted pairs?
- A. SDSL
- B. ADSL
- C. HDSL
- D. VDSL
Answer: C
Explanation:
High-rate Digital Subscriber Line (HDSL) delivers 1.544 Mbps of bandwidth each way over two copper twisted pairs. SDSL also delivers 1.544 Mbps but over a single copper twisted pair. ADSL and VDSL offer a higher bandwidth downstream than upstream. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 115).
NEW QUESTION # 136
Which access model is most appropriate for companies with a high employee turnover?
- A. Role-based access control
- B. Lattice-based access control
- C. Discretionary access control
- D. Mandatory access control
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The underlying problem for a company with a lot of turnover is assuring that new employees are assigned the correct access permissions and that those permissions are removed when they leave the company.
Selecting the best answer requires one to think about the access control options in the context of a company with a lot of flux in the employee population. RBAC simplifies the task of assigning permissions because the permissions are assigned to roles which do not change based on who belongs to them. As employees join the company, it is simply a matter of assigning them to the appropriate roles and their permissions derive from their assigned role. They will implicitely inherit the permissions of the role or roles they have been assigned to. When they leave the company or change jobs, their role assignment is revoked/changed appropriately.
Mandatory access control is incorrect. While controlling access based on the clearence level of employees and the sensitivity of obects is a better choice than some of the other incorrect answers, it is not the best choice when RBAC is an option and you are looking for the best solution for a high number of employees constantly leaving or joining the company.
Lattice-based access control is incorrect. The lattice is really a mathematical concept that is used in formally modeling information flow (Bell-Lapadula, Biba, etc). In the context of the question, an abstract model of information flow is not an appropriate choice. CBK, pp. 324-325.
Discretionary access control is incorrect. When an employee joins or leaves the company, the object owner must grant or revoke access for that employee on all the objects they own. Problems would also arise when the owner of an object leaves the company. The complexity of assuring that the permissions are added and removed correctly makes this the least desirable solution in this situation.
References
Alll in One, third edition page 165
RBAC is discussed on pp. 189 through 191 of the ISC(2) guide.
NEW QUESTION # 137
In the CIA triad, what does the letter A stand for?
- A. Auditability
- B. Accountability
- C. Availability
- D. Authentication
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The CIA triad stands for Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability.
NEW QUESTION # 138
Which integrity model defines a constrained data item, an integrity verification procedure and a transformation procedure?
- A. The Bell-LaPadula integrity model
- B. The Take-Grant model
- C. The Biba integrity model
- D. The Clark Wilson integrity model
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Clark Wilson integrity model addresses the three following integrity goals: 1) data is protected from modification by unauthorized users; 2) data is protected from unauthorized modification by authorized users; and 3) data is internally and externally consistent. It also defines a Constrained Data Item (CDI), an Integrity Verification Procedure (IVP), a Transformation Procedure (TP) and an Unconstrained Data item. The Bell-LaPadula and Take-Grant models are not integrity models. Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 5: Security Architecture and Models (page 205).
NEW QUESTION # 139
The concept of best effort delivery is best associated with?
- A. RSVP
- B. HTTP
- C. IP
- D. TCP
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Internet Protocol (IP) is a data-oriented protocol used for communicating data across a packet-switched internetwork. IP provides an unreliable service (i.e., best effort delivery). This means that the network makes no guarantees about the packet.
Low-level connectionless protocols such as DDP (under Appletalk) and IP usually provide best-effort delivery of data.
Best-effort delivery means that the protocol attempts to deliver any packets that meet certain requirements, such as containing a valid destination address, but the protocol does not inform the sender when it is unable to deliver the data, nor does it attempt to recover from error conditions and data loss.
Higher-level protocols such as TCP on the other hand, can provide reliable delivery of data. Reliable delivery includes error checking and recovery from error or loss of data.
HTTP is the HyperText Transport Protocol used to establish connections to a web server and thus one of the higher level protocol using TCP to ensure delivery of all bytes between the client and the server. It was not a good choice according to the question presented.
Here is another definition from the TCP/IP guide at: http://www.tcpipguide.com/free/t_IPOverviewandKeyOperationalCharacteristics.htm
Delivered Unreliably: IP is said to be an "unreliable protocol". That doesn't mean that one day your IP software will decide to go fishing rather than run your network. J It does mean that when datagrams are sent from device A to device B, device A just sends each one and then moves on to the next. IP doesn't keep track of the ones it sent. It does not provide reliability or service quality capabilities such as error protection for the data it sends (though it does on the IP header), flow control or retransmission of lost datagrams.
For this reason, IP is sometimes called a best-effort protocol. It does what it can to get data to where it needs to go, but "makes no guarantees" that the data will actually get there.
NEW QUESTION # 140
Which of the following rules appearing in an Internet firewall policy is inappropriate?
- A. Source routing shall be disabled on all firewalls and external routers.
- B. Firewalls should fail to a configuration that denies all services, and require a firewall administrator to re- enable services after a firewall has failed.
- C. Firewalls shall be configured to transparently allow all outbound and inbound services.
- D. Firewalls shall not accept traffic on its external interfaces that appear to be coming from internal network addresses.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Unless approved by the Network Services manager, all in-bound services shall be intercepted and processed by the firewall. Allowing unrestricted services inbound and outbound is certainly NOT recommended and very dangerous.
Pay close attention to the keyword: all
All of the other choices presented are recommended practices for a firewall policy.
Reference(s) used for this question:
GUTTMAN, Barbara & BAGWILL, Robert, NIST Special Publication 800-xx, Internet Security Policy: A Technical Guide, Draft Version, May 25, 2000 (page 78).
NEW QUESTION # 141
Which of the following OSI layers provides routing and related services?
- A. Physical Layer
- B. Presentation Layer
- C. Network Layer
- D. Session Layer
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Network and Telecommunications
Explanation/Reference:
The Network Layer performs network routing functions.
The following answers are incorrect:
Presentation Layer. Is incorrect because the Presentation Layer transforms the data to provide a standard interface for the Application layer.
Session Layer. Is incorrect because the Session Layer controls the dialogues/connections (sessions) between computers.
Physical Layer. is incorrect because the Physical Layer defines all the electrical and physical specifications for devices.
NEW QUESTION # 142
The IP header contains a protocol field. If this field contains the value of 6, what type of data is contained within the ip datagram?
- A. IGMP.
- B. UDP.
- C. TCP.
- D. ICMP.
Answer: C
Explanation:
If the protocol field has a value of 6 then it would indicate it was TCP. The protocol field of the IP packet dictates what protocol the IP packet is using.
TCP=6, ICMP=1, UDP=17, IGMP=2
The following answers are incorrect:
ICMP. Is incorrect because the value for an ICMP protocol would be 1.
UDP. Is incorrect because the value for an UDP protocol would be 17.
IGMP. Is incorrect because the value for an IGMP protocol would be 2.
References:
SANS http://www.sans.org/resources/tcpip.pdf?ref=3871
NEW QUESTION # 143
A proxy is considered a:
- A. third generation firewall.
- B. second generation firewall.
- C. fourth generation firewall.
- D. first generation firewall.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
The proxy (application layer firewall, circuit level proxy, or application proxy ) is a second generation firewall
"First generation firewall" incorrect. A packet filtering firewall is a first generation firewall.
"Third generation firewall" is incorrect. Stateful Firewall are considered third generation firewalls
"Fourth generation firewall" is incorrect. Dynamic packet filtering firewalls are fourth generation firewalls References:
CBK, p. 464
AIO3, pp. 482 - 484
Neither CBK or AIO3 use the generation terminology for firewall types but you will encounter it frequently as a practicing security professional. See http://www.cisco.com/univercd/cc/td/doc/product/iaabu/centri4/ user/scf4ch3.htm for a general discussion of the different generations.
NEW QUESTION # 144
Which layer of the DoD TCP/IP Model ensures error-free delivery and packet sequencing?
- A. Application layer
- B. Host-to-host
- C. Internet layer
- D. Network access layer
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
This layer of the DoD Model is also sometimes called Transport in some books but the proper name is Host-to-Host as per the RFC document.
The host-to-host layer provides for reliable end-to-end communications, ensures the data's error-free delivery, handles the data's packet sequencing, and maintains the data's integrity.
It is comparable to the transport layer of the OSI model.
Reference(s) used for this question:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Internet_protocol_suite
and
http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc786900%28v=ws.10%29.aspx
and
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, John Wiley & Sons, 2001, Chapter 3: Telecommunications and Network Security (page 85).
NEW QUESTION # 145
After a company is out of an emergency state, what should be moved back to the original site first?
- A. IT support staff
- B. Most critical components
- C. Executives
- D. Least critical components
Answer: D
Explanation:
This will expose any weaknesses in the plan and ensure the primary site has been properly repaired before moving back. Moving critical assets first may induce a second disaster if the primary site has not been repaired properly.
The first group to go back would test items such as connectivity, HVAC, power, water, improper procedures, and/or steps that has been overlooked or not done properly. By moving these first, and fixing any problems identified, the critical operations of the company are not negatively affected.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002, chapter 9: Disaster Recovery and Business continuity (page 621).
NEW QUESTION # 146
Which of the following is a token-passing scheme like token ring that also has a second ring that remains dormant until an error condition is detected on the primary ring?
- A. Broadband
- B. Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI).
- C. Fast Ethernet
- D. Ethernet
Answer: B
Explanation:
FDDI is a token-passing ring scheme like a token ring, yet it also has a second ring that remains dormant until an error condition is detected on the primary ring.
Fiber Distributed Data Interface (FDDI) provides a 100 Mbit/s optical standard for data transmission in a local area network that can extend in range up to 200 kilometers (124 miles). Although FDDI logical topology is a ring-based token network, it does not use the IEEE 802.5 token ring protocol as its basis; instead, its protocol is derived from the IEEE
802.4 token bus timed token protocol. In addition to covering large geographical areas, FDDI local area networks can support thousands of users. As a standard underlying medium it uses optical fiber, although it can use copper cable, in which case it may be refer to as CDDI (Copper Distributed Data Interface). FDDI offers both a Dual-Attached Station (DAS), counter-rotating token ring topology and a Single-Attached Station (SAS), token bus passing ring topology.
Ethernet is a family of frame-based computer networking technologies for local area networks (LANs). The name came from the physical concept of the ether. It defines a number of wiring and signaling standards for the Physical Layer of the OSI networking model as well as a common addressing format and Media Access Control at the Data Link Layer.
In computer networking, Fast Ethernet is a collective term for a number of Ethernet
standards that carry traffic at the nominal rate of 100 Mbit/s, against the original Ethernet
speed of 10 Mbit/s. Of the fast Ethernet standards 100BASE-TX is by far the most common
and is supported by the vast majority of Ethernet hardware currently produced. Fast
Ethernet was introduced in 1995 and remained the fastest version of Ethernet for three
years before being superseded by gigabit Ethernet.
Broadband in data can refer to broadband networks or broadband Internet and may have
the same meaning as above, so that data transmission over a fiber optic cable would be
referred to as broadband as compared to a telephone modem operating at 56,000 bits per
second. However, a worldwide standard for what level of bandwidth and network speeds
actually constitute Broadband have not been determined.[1]
Broadband in data communications is frequently used in a more technical sense to refer to
data transmission where multiple pieces of data are sent simultaneously to increase the
effective rate of transmission, regardless of data signaling rate. In network engineering this
term is used for methods where two or more signals share a medium.[Broadband Internet
access, often shortened to just broadband, is a high data rate Internet access-typically
contrasted with dial-up access using a 56k modem.
Dial-up modems are limited to a bitrate of less than 56 kbit/s (kilobits per second) and
require the full use of a telephone line-whereas broadband technologies supply more than
double this rate and generally without disrupting telephone use.
Source:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten
Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 72.
also see:
http://en.wikipedia.org/
NEW QUESTION # 147
Which of the following would BEST be defined as an absence or weakness of safeguard that could be exploited?
- A. A vulnerability
- B. A risk
- C. A threat
- D. An exposure
Answer: A
Explanation:
It is a software , hardware or procedural weakness that may provide an attacker the open door he is looking for to enter a computer or network and have unauthorized access to resources within the environment. A vulnerability characterizes the absence or weakness of a safeguard that could be exploited. This vulnerability may be a service running on a server, unpatched applications or operating system software etc.
The following answers are incorrect because: Threat: A threat is defined as a potential danger to information or systems. The threat is someone or something will identify a specific vulnerability and use it against the company or individual. The entity that takes advantage of a vulnerability is referred to as a 'Threat Agent'. A threat agent could be an intruder accessing the network through a port on the firewall , a process accessing data that violates the security policy. Risk:A risk is the likelihood of a threat agent taking advantage of a vulnerability and the corresponding business impact. If a firewall has several ports open , there is a higher likelihood that an intruder will use one to access the network in an unauthorized method.
Exposure: An exposure is an instance of being exposed to losses from a threat agent.
REFERENCES: SHON HARRIS , ALL IN ONE THIRD EDITION : Chapter 3 : Security Management Practices , Pages: 57-59
NEW QUESTION # 148
Which TCSEC level is labeled Controlled Access Protection?
- A. C2
- B. C1
- C. C3
- D. B1
Answer: A
Explanation:
C2 is labeled Controlled Access Protection.
The TCSEC defines four divisions: D, C, B and A where division A has the highest security.
Each division represents a significant difference in the trust an individual or organization can place on the evaluated system. Additionally divisions C, B and A are broken into a series of hierarchical subdivisions called classes: C1, C2, B1, B2, B3 and A1.
Each division and class expands or modifies as indicated the requirements of the immediately prior division or class. D - Minimal protection
Reserved for those systems that have been evaluated but that fail to meet the requirements for a higher division
C - Discretionary protection
C1 - Discretionary Security Protection Identification and authentication Separation of users and data Discretionary Access Control (DAC) capable of enforcing access limitations on an individual basis Required System Documentation and user manuals C2 - Controlled Access Protection More finely grained DAC Individual accountability through login procedures Audit trails Object reuse Resource isolation
B - Mandatory protection
B1 - Labeled Security Protection Informal statement of the security policy model Data sensitivity labels Mandatory Access Control (MAC) over selected subjects and objects Label exportation capabilities All discovered flaws must be removed or otherwise mitigated Design specifications and verification B2 - Structured Protection Security policy model clearly defined and formally documented DAC and MAC enforcement extended to all subjects and objects Covert storage channels are analyzed for occurrence and bandwidth Carefully structured into protection-critical and non-protection-critical elements Design and implementation enable more comprehensive testing and review Authentication mechanisms are strengthened Trusted facility management is provided with administrator and operator segregation Strict configuration management controls are imposed B3 - Security Domains Satisfies reference monitor requirements Structured to exclude code not essential to security policy enforcement Significant system engineering directed toward minimizing complexity Security administrator role defined Audit security-relevant events Automated imminent intrusion detection, notification, and response Trusted system recovery procedures Covert timing channels are analyzed for occurrence and bandwidth An example of such a system is the XTS-300, a precursor to the XTS-400
A - Verified protection
A1 - Verified Design Functionally identical to B3 Formal design and verification techniques including a formal top-level specification Formal management and distribution procedures An example of such a system is Honeywell's Secure Communications Processor SCOMP, a precursor to the XTS-400 Beyond A1 System Architecture demonstrates that the requirements of self-protection and completeness for reference monitors have been implemented in the Trusted Computing Base (TCB). Security Testing automatically generates test-case from the formal top-level specification or formal lower-level specifications. Formal Specification and Verification is where the TCB is verified down to the source code level, using formal verification methods where feasible. Trusted Design Environment is where the TCB is designed in a trusted facility with only trusted (cleared) personnel.
The following are incorrect answers:
C1 is Discretionary security
C3 does not exists, it is only a detractor
B1 is called Labeled Security Protection.
Reference(s) used for this question:
HARE, Chris, Security management Practices CISSP Open Study Guide, version 1.0, april
1999.
and
AIOv4 Security Architecture and Design (pages 357 - 361)
AIOv5 Security Architecture and Design (pages 358 - 362)
NEW QUESTION # 149
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